Was Yahshua or ‘Jesus’ a Celt?
According to the gospels, Yahshua or ‘Jesus’ was known as a Galilean (Matt 26:69) which wasn’t surprising considering He grew up in Galilee; spent most of His ministry there and chose 11 of His 12 disciples from Galilee too. In fact, it seems Galilee was the one place He felt safe since it was the Galileans, unlike the ‘Jews’ who believed and followed Him:
"When Joseph and Mary had done everything required by the Law...they returned to Galilee to their own town of Nazareth. And the child grew and became strong; he was filled with wisdom, and the grace of God was on him..." (Luke 2:39-40)
“Now when Yahshua had heard that John was cast into prison, he departed into Galilee…” (Matt 4:12)
“After these things Yahshua walked in Galilee: for he would not walk in Jewry, because the Jews sought to kill him.” (John 7:1)
“As Yahshua was walking beside the Sea of Galilee, he saw two brothers, Simon called Peter and his brother Andrew…“Come, follow me,” Yahshua said…At once they left their nets and followed him…“Going on from there, he saw two other brothers, James son of Zebedee and his brother John…Yahshua called them, and immediately they left the boat and their father and followed him” (Matt 4:18-22)
"Then when He was come into Galilee, the Galileans received him, having seen all the things that he did..." (John 4:45)
“And Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospel of the kingdom, and healing all manner of sickness and all manner of disease among the people…there followed him great multitudes of people from Galilee…(Matt 4:23-25)
"Then the eleven disciples went to Galilee, to the mountain where Jesus had told them to go. When they saw him, they worshiped him..." (Matt 28:16)
So who were the Galileans and were they related to the Galatians to whom Paul wrote one of his most famous letters?
Since Christ said "I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel" (Matt 15:24) the Galileans must have been Israelites. However, is there proof they were also Celts?
If they were related to the Galatians then yes they must have been. And if so, then Yahshua must have been a Celt too!
Were the Galatians Celts?
“What we know of the Galatians state gives us our first example of the organisation of a Celtic state,’ says Henri Hubert in the ‘Greatness and Decline of the Celts’ (1934). “Galatia was established by the Celts in Asia Minor during the third century BC and a Celtic language was still spoken there in the fourth century AD. The Galatians had become one of the first peoples to accept the new religion of Christianity and are now best known through Paul or Tarsus famous Epistle to the Galatians written about 55 AD.” (The Celtic Empire, Peter B Ellis, Pg 92)
“It was Hieronymos of Cardia who is credited with the first-known use of the term Galatia, the land of the Gauls, Galli or Celts” (ibid. Pg 94)
“According to Strabo the Galatians spoke Celtic in his day (63 BC to AD 21) and Lucan (39 - 65 AD) supports this…And then we have the famous evidence of St Jerome (Eusebius Hieronymous) in the forth century AD…he was able to state categorically not only that the Galatians still spoke Celtic but that the language was very close to that spoken by the Guals of Treves…So we may safely say that Celtic was spoken in the central plain of what is modern Turkey for at least seven centuries” (ibid. Pg 96)
Referring to the Celts, “When they emerge in historical record, they are first called Keltoi, by the Greeks. Polybuis also uses the word Galatae, which had, by his day, become widely used by the Greeks. The Romans referred to them as Galli as well as Celtae. Diodorus Siculus, Julius Caesar, Strabo and Pausanias all recognise the synonymous use of these terms. And Julius Caesar comments that the Gauls of his day referred to themselves as Celtae.” (ibid. Pg 9)
Now back to Galilee where Christ searched for His “lost sheep of Israel.” Isn’t it logical if the Romans called the Celts the “Galli” during this time and the Celts were called:
Galatians in Asia Minor
Galicians in Spain
Gauls in Europe
Gaels in Ireland
Then wouldn’t it make sense that the Galileans in Palestine must have also been Celts? Clearly the ‘Galli’ which the Romans used to refer to the Celts was a prefix and although there are some slight spelling deviations they would all have had a similar pronunciation.
What’s more, the name ‘Galli’ and all its variants above appears to come from the Hebrew word “galah, a primitive root; to denude (especially in a disgraceful sense); by implication to exile” (Strong’s Concordance).
Calling the Israelites ‘exiles’ would be fitting remembering the House of Israel had been exiled by Yahweh as punishment for their sins when they were defeated by the Assyrians in 721 BC and all transported and resettled in northern Persia. What is truly fascinating is that as the House of Israel passed from history having been taken captive by the Assyrians and resettled in northern Persia south of the Caucasus Mountains, the Celts and Scythians (Saxons) suddenly burst into recorded history coming from the same direction the Israelites had been settled!
For evidence and proof that the Celts were Israelites visit:
Anglo Saxon Celts Were Israelites
Anglo Saxons Are Chosen People
Anglo Saxons Fulfil All Prophesy
What the Israelites Looked Like
Celt and Israel's Similar Customs
The Galatians Were Also Israelites
So according to ancient and modern historians, the Galatians were Celts. Is there any evidence that Paul also referred to these Celts as Israelites? Yes.
Since Christ said "I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel" (Matt 15:24) and told his disciples to go only "to the lost sheep of the house of Israel" (Matt 10:6) then all their mission trips and letters must have been addressed to 'lost Israelites' just as they were commanded.
In obedience to this James wrote his Epistle “to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting” (James 1:1) while Paul also wrote all his letters to the ‘Gentiles’ or ‘lost Israelites’ as will be shown later. One of his first letters of which was addressed to the Galatians.
Paul refers to the Galatians as “brethren” 11 times. While many might assume Paul was simply referring to ‘fellow Christians’ in general, this could not have been the case. He could only have been using it in reference to his fellow kinsman and kinswoman (i.e. people of the same clan or race). There are two good reasons for this. One, he was from Tarsus, the city next door populated by the same Celts and secondly because the word “brethren” comes from the Greek word “adelphos” which specifically means “brother” in the sense of someone related. According to the Strong’s Concordance it infers a blood relationship since it’s “a connective particle…(the womb); a brother…near or remote…brother.” He was therefore calling the Celts his kinsfolk.
Since Paul says he was “of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of the Hebrews” (Phil 3:5) and refers to the Celts of Galatia as his relatives or clansman, then the Celts must have also be Israelites.
Is this also backed up by Paul’s message to the Celts? Yes!
Addressing the Galatians (chapter 3), he states “we were kept under the law”. Which law? The sacrificial law “which was four hundred and thirty years after” added. Only Israelites could be said to have been “under the law” since no other nation or people had been given these laws or practiced them. In further reference to these sacrificial laws he states “Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ”. Again, these laws could only have been Israel’s “schoolmaster” since only they had them. Saying this to any other people or nation would have been nonsense. He goes on and says “when we were children, we were in bondage”. Only Israel was in bondage in its beginnings (when ‘a child’), both in Egypt and later under the law itself. He goes further putting it beyond any doubt saying God sent Christ “To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.” Once more, only Israel had been under the law; only Israel was ever called “sons” and only Israel could be redeemed.
You may be asking, hasn’t he redeemed everyone, not just Israel? This of course would be a fair and reasonable question, since most people assume redemption is similar to salvation. However, this would be a mistake. While salvation can apply to anyone, redemption is much more exclusive and narrower in application. This is because it legally means “A repurchase; a buying back” (Black’s Law Dictionary) Strong’s Concordance also confirms its meaning as to ‘buy back’ by the previous owner or their next of kin:
“to redeem…that is, to be the next of kin (and as such to buy back a relative’s property, marry his widow, etc.)…(do, perform the part of near, next) kinsfolk (-man), purchase, ransom, redeem (-er)…” (Strong’s Concordance 1350)
“redemption (including the right and the object); by implication relationship: kindred, redeem, redemption, right.” (Strong’s Concordance 1353)
Of course, this is all in accordance with Yahweh’s law which also defines redemption as the repurchase of a ‘person or property’ by the previous owner or their relative/kindred:
“After that he is sold he may be redeemed again; one of his brethren may redeem him: Either his uncle, or his uncle's son, may redeem him, or any that is nigh of kin unto him of his family may redeem him; or if he be able, he may redeem himself.” (Lev 25:48-49)
If we now put this all together, redemption means ‘the repurchase of something once possessed at a stipulated price, either by the previous owner or their relative’.
Again, this means only Israel could be redeemed, since only Israel had ever been the ‘possession’ of Yahweh:
"For the people of Israel belong to Yahweh; Jacob is his special possession…” (Deut 32:9)
“For you are a people holy to Yahweh your God. Yahweh your God has chosen you out of all the peoples on the face of the earth to be his people, his treasured possession.” (Deut 7:6)
“For Yahweh has chosen Jacob to be his own, Israel to be his treasured possession.” (Ps 135:4)
“Now if you obey me fully and keep my covenant, then out of all nations you will be my treasured possession. Although the whole earth is mine…” (Ex 19:5)
Only Israel were ever referred to as His “children” and “sons”:
“And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith Yahweh, Israel is my son, even my firstborn: And I say unto thee, Let my son go, that he may serve me” (Ex 4:22-23)
In reference to Israel “Can a woman forget her sucking child, that she should not have compassion on the son of her womb? yea, they may forget, yet will I not forget thee.” (Isa 49:15)
For “You only have I known of all the families of the earth.” (Amos 3:2)
If this wasn’t yet clear enough, the Bible confirms in plain language that it was indeed Israel who were redeemed:
“And I have also heard the groaning of the children of Israel…, and I have remembered My covenant. Therefore say to the children of Israel: ‘I am the Lord; I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians, I will rescue you from their bondage, and I will redeem you with an outstretched arm and with great judgments. I will take you as My people, and I will be your God” (Ex 6:5-7)
“But now thus saith Yahweh that created thee, O Jacob, and he that formed thee, O Israel, Fear not: for I have redeemed thee, I have called thee by thy name; thou art mine.” (Isa 43:1)
“Remember these, O Jacob and Israel; for thou art my servant: I have formed thee; thou art my servant: O Israel, thou shalt not be forgotten of me. I have blotted out, as a thick cloud, thy transgressions, and, as a cloud, thy sins: return unto me; for I have redeemed thee. Sing, O ye heavens; for Yahweh hath done it: shout, ye lower parts of the earth: break forth into singing, ye mountains, O forest, and every tree therein: for Yahweh hath redeemed Jacob, and glorified himself in Israel.” (Isa 44:21-23)
“Fear not; for thou shalt not be ashamed: neither be thou confounded; for thou shalt not be put to shame: for thou shalt forget the shame of thy youth, and shalt not remember the reproach of thy widowhood any more. For thy Maker is thine husband; Yahweh of hosts is his name; and thy Redeemer the Holy One of Israel; The God of the whole earth shall he be called. For Yahweh hath called thee as a woman forsaken and grieved in spirit, and a wife of youth, when thou wast refused, saith thy God. For a small moment have I forsaken thee; but with great mercies will I gather thee. In a little wrath I hid my face from thee for a moment; but with everlasting kindness will I have mercy on thee, saith Yahweh thy Redeemer.” (Isa 54:4-8)
What wonderful words of comfort Paul’s words must have been to the Celts (lost Israel) for they were not without hope, but were redeemed that they “might receive the adoption of sons!”
For Paul says finally “And because ye are sons…Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ. Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are the children of promise…”
Not only were the Celts, sons, but as kinsfolk like Isaac, children of the promise and that promise was only made to Jacob and his descendants.
“Brethren…Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made… And this I say, that the covenant,…the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect. But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster. Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage…But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father. Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ. Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are the children of promise…So then, brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman, but of the free. And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God. (Gal 3:16-4:28)
For more evidence and proof of Israel in the New Testament and the fact they we being called gentiles at that time visit:
Israel in the New Testament
Who are the Gentiles
Did the Church Replace Israel
Summary
We know that the Galileans were Israelites. We know that Yahshua was considered a Galilean. We know the Romans called the Celts the “Galli” at this time and used it as a prefix for all Celts since they were called Galatians in Asia Minor, Galicians in Spain, Gauls in Europe and Gaels in Ireland. It would therefore be logical to conclude that the Galileans in Palestine must have also been Celts. This is not unreasonable since according to Paul’s letter to the Galatians, he clearly believed these Celts to be Israelites. Therefore, it would appear Yahshua must have been a Celt!
Key words: Anglo, Saxon, Celts, Celtic, Israel, Israelites, Britain, America, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, truth, bible, God, Yahweh, Yahshua, Jesus, truth, gospel, british, kingdom, earth, king, nation, empire, real, throne, land, law, church, british
"When Joseph and Mary had done everything required by the Law...they returned to Galilee to their own town of Nazareth. And the child grew and became strong; he was filled with wisdom, and the grace of God was on him..." (Luke 2:39-40)
“Now when Yahshua had heard that John was cast into prison, he departed into Galilee…” (Matt 4:12)
“After these things Yahshua walked in Galilee: for he would not walk in Jewry, because the Jews sought to kill him.” (John 7:1)
“As Yahshua was walking beside the Sea of Galilee, he saw two brothers, Simon called Peter and his brother Andrew…“Come, follow me,” Yahshua said…At once they left their nets and followed him…“Going on from there, he saw two other brothers, James son of Zebedee and his brother John…Yahshua called them, and immediately they left the boat and their father and followed him” (Matt 4:18-22)
"Then when He was come into Galilee, the Galileans received him, having seen all the things that he did..." (John 4:45)
“And Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospel of the kingdom, and healing all manner of sickness and all manner of disease among the people…there followed him great multitudes of people from Galilee…(Matt 4:23-25)
"Then the eleven disciples went to Galilee, to the mountain where Jesus had told them to go. When they saw him, they worshiped him..." (Matt 28:16)
So who were the Galileans and were they related to the Galatians to whom Paul wrote one of his most famous letters?
Since Christ said "I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel" (Matt 15:24) the Galileans must have been Israelites. However, is there proof they were also Celts?
If they were related to the Galatians then yes they must have been. And if so, then Yahshua must have been a Celt too!
Were the Galatians Celts?
“What we know of the Galatians state gives us our first example of the organisation of a Celtic state,’ says Henri Hubert in the ‘Greatness and Decline of the Celts’ (1934). “Galatia was established by the Celts in Asia Minor during the third century BC and a Celtic language was still spoken there in the fourth century AD. The Galatians had become one of the first peoples to accept the new religion of Christianity and are now best known through Paul or Tarsus famous Epistle to the Galatians written about 55 AD.” (The Celtic Empire, Peter B Ellis, Pg 92)
“It was Hieronymos of Cardia who is credited with the first-known use of the term Galatia, the land of the Gauls, Galli or Celts” (ibid. Pg 94)
“According to Strabo the Galatians spoke Celtic in his day (63 BC to AD 21) and Lucan (39 - 65 AD) supports this…And then we have the famous evidence of St Jerome (Eusebius Hieronymous) in the forth century AD…he was able to state categorically not only that the Galatians still spoke Celtic but that the language was very close to that spoken by the Guals of Treves…So we may safely say that Celtic was spoken in the central plain of what is modern Turkey for at least seven centuries” (ibid. Pg 96)
Referring to the Celts, “When they emerge in historical record, they are first called Keltoi, by the Greeks. Polybuis also uses the word Galatae, which had, by his day, become widely used by the Greeks. The Romans referred to them as Galli as well as Celtae. Diodorus Siculus, Julius Caesar, Strabo and Pausanias all recognise the synonymous use of these terms. And Julius Caesar comments that the Gauls of his day referred to themselves as Celtae.” (ibid. Pg 9)
Now back to Galilee where Christ searched for His “lost sheep of Israel.” Isn’t it logical if the Romans called the Celts the “Galli” during this time and the Celts were called:
Galatians in Asia Minor
Galicians in Spain
Gauls in Europe
Gaels in Ireland
Then wouldn’t it make sense that the Galileans in Palestine must have also been Celts? Clearly the ‘Galli’ which the Romans used to refer to the Celts was a prefix and although there are some slight spelling deviations they would all have had a similar pronunciation.
What’s more, the name ‘Galli’ and all its variants above appears to come from the Hebrew word “galah, a primitive root; to denude (especially in a disgraceful sense); by implication to exile” (Strong’s Concordance).
Calling the Israelites ‘exiles’ would be fitting remembering the House of Israel had been exiled by Yahweh as punishment for their sins when they were defeated by the Assyrians in 721 BC and all transported and resettled in northern Persia. What is truly fascinating is that as the House of Israel passed from history having been taken captive by the Assyrians and resettled in northern Persia south of the Caucasus Mountains, the Celts and Scythians (Saxons) suddenly burst into recorded history coming from the same direction the Israelites had been settled!
For evidence and proof that the Celts were Israelites visit:
Anglo Saxon Celts Were Israelites
Anglo Saxons Are Chosen People
Anglo Saxons Fulfil All Prophesy
What the Israelites Looked Like
Celt and Israel's Similar Customs
The Galatians Were Also Israelites
So according to ancient and modern historians, the Galatians were Celts. Is there any evidence that Paul also referred to these Celts as Israelites? Yes.
Since Christ said "I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel" (Matt 15:24) and told his disciples to go only "to the lost sheep of the house of Israel" (Matt 10:6) then all their mission trips and letters must have been addressed to 'lost Israelites' just as they were commanded.
In obedience to this James wrote his Epistle “to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting” (James 1:1) while Paul also wrote all his letters to the ‘Gentiles’ or ‘lost Israelites’ as will be shown later. One of his first letters of which was addressed to the Galatians.
Paul refers to the Galatians as “brethren” 11 times. While many might assume Paul was simply referring to ‘fellow Christians’ in general, this could not have been the case. He could only have been using it in reference to his fellow kinsman and kinswoman (i.e. people of the same clan or race). There are two good reasons for this. One, he was from Tarsus, the city next door populated by the same Celts and secondly because the word “brethren” comes from the Greek word “adelphos” which specifically means “brother” in the sense of someone related. According to the Strong’s Concordance it infers a blood relationship since it’s “a connective particle…(the womb); a brother…near or remote…brother.” He was therefore calling the Celts his kinsfolk.
Since Paul says he was “of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of the Hebrews” (Phil 3:5) and refers to the Celts of Galatia as his relatives or clansman, then the Celts must have also be Israelites.
Is this also backed up by Paul’s message to the Celts? Yes!
Addressing the Galatians (chapter 3), he states “we were kept under the law”. Which law? The sacrificial law “which was four hundred and thirty years after” added. Only Israelites could be said to have been “under the law” since no other nation or people had been given these laws or practiced them. In further reference to these sacrificial laws he states “Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ”. Again, these laws could only have been Israel’s “schoolmaster” since only they had them. Saying this to any other people or nation would have been nonsense. He goes on and says “when we were children, we were in bondage”. Only Israel was in bondage in its beginnings (when ‘a child’), both in Egypt and later under the law itself. He goes further putting it beyond any doubt saying God sent Christ “To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.” Once more, only Israel had been under the law; only Israel was ever called “sons” and only Israel could be redeemed.
You may be asking, hasn’t he redeemed everyone, not just Israel? This of course would be a fair and reasonable question, since most people assume redemption is similar to salvation. However, this would be a mistake. While salvation can apply to anyone, redemption is much more exclusive and narrower in application. This is because it legally means “A repurchase; a buying back” (Black’s Law Dictionary) Strong’s Concordance also confirms its meaning as to ‘buy back’ by the previous owner or their next of kin:
“to redeem…that is, to be the next of kin (and as such to buy back a relative’s property, marry his widow, etc.)…(do, perform the part of near, next) kinsfolk (-man), purchase, ransom, redeem (-er)…” (Strong’s Concordance 1350)
“redemption (including the right and the object); by implication relationship: kindred, redeem, redemption, right.” (Strong’s Concordance 1353)
Of course, this is all in accordance with Yahweh’s law which also defines redemption as the repurchase of a ‘person or property’ by the previous owner or their relative/kindred:
“After that he is sold he may be redeemed again; one of his brethren may redeem him: Either his uncle, or his uncle's son, may redeem him, or any that is nigh of kin unto him of his family may redeem him; or if he be able, he may redeem himself.” (Lev 25:48-49)
If we now put this all together, redemption means ‘the repurchase of something once possessed at a stipulated price, either by the previous owner or their relative’.
Again, this means only Israel could be redeemed, since only Israel had ever been the ‘possession’ of Yahweh:
"For the people of Israel belong to Yahweh; Jacob is his special possession…” (Deut 32:9)
“For you are a people holy to Yahweh your God. Yahweh your God has chosen you out of all the peoples on the face of the earth to be his people, his treasured possession.” (Deut 7:6)
“For Yahweh has chosen Jacob to be his own, Israel to be his treasured possession.” (Ps 135:4)
“Now if you obey me fully and keep my covenant, then out of all nations you will be my treasured possession. Although the whole earth is mine…” (Ex 19:5)
Only Israel were ever referred to as His “children” and “sons”:
“And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith Yahweh, Israel is my son, even my firstborn: And I say unto thee, Let my son go, that he may serve me” (Ex 4:22-23)
In reference to Israel “Can a woman forget her sucking child, that she should not have compassion on the son of her womb? yea, they may forget, yet will I not forget thee.” (Isa 49:15)
For “You only have I known of all the families of the earth.” (Amos 3:2)
If this wasn’t yet clear enough, the Bible confirms in plain language that it was indeed Israel who were redeemed:
“And I have also heard the groaning of the children of Israel…, and I have remembered My covenant. Therefore say to the children of Israel: ‘I am the Lord; I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians, I will rescue you from their bondage, and I will redeem you with an outstretched arm and with great judgments. I will take you as My people, and I will be your God” (Ex 6:5-7)
“But now thus saith Yahweh that created thee, O Jacob, and he that formed thee, O Israel, Fear not: for I have redeemed thee, I have called thee by thy name; thou art mine.” (Isa 43:1)
“Remember these, O Jacob and Israel; for thou art my servant: I have formed thee; thou art my servant: O Israel, thou shalt not be forgotten of me. I have blotted out, as a thick cloud, thy transgressions, and, as a cloud, thy sins: return unto me; for I have redeemed thee. Sing, O ye heavens; for Yahweh hath done it: shout, ye lower parts of the earth: break forth into singing, ye mountains, O forest, and every tree therein: for Yahweh hath redeemed Jacob, and glorified himself in Israel.” (Isa 44:21-23)
“Fear not; for thou shalt not be ashamed: neither be thou confounded; for thou shalt not be put to shame: for thou shalt forget the shame of thy youth, and shalt not remember the reproach of thy widowhood any more. For thy Maker is thine husband; Yahweh of hosts is his name; and thy Redeemer the Holy One of Israel; The God of the whole earth shall he be called. For Yahweh hath called thee as a woman forsaken and grieved in spirit, and a wife of youth, when thou wast refused, saith thy God. For a small moment have I forsaken thee; but with great mercies will I gather thee. In a little wrath I hid my face from thee for a moment; but with everlasting kindness will I have mercy on thee, saith Yahweh thy Redeemer.” (Isa 54:4-8)
What wonderful words of comfort Paul’s words must have been to the Celts (lost Israel) for they were not without hope, but were redeemed that they “might receive the adoption of sons!”
For Paul says finally “And because ye are sons…Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ. Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are the children of promise…”
Not only were the Celts, sons, but as kinsfolk like Isaac, children of the promise and that promise was only made to Jacob and his descendants.
“Brethren…Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made… And this I say, that the covenant,…the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect. But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster. Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage…But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father. Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ. Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are the children of promise…So then, brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman, but of the free. And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God. (Gal 3:16-4:28)
For more evidence and proof of Israel in the New Testament and the fact they we being called gentiles at that time visit:
Israel in the New Testament
Who are the Gentiles
Did the Church Replace Israel
Summary
We know that the Galileans were Israelites. We know that Yahshua was considered a Galilean. We know the Romans called the Celts the “Galli” at this time and used it as a prefix for all Celts since they were called Galatians in Asia Minor, Galicians in Spain, Gauls in Europe and Gaels in Ireland. It would therefore be logical to conclude that the Galileans in Palestine must have also been Celts. This is not unreasonable since according to Paul’s letter to the Galatians, he clearly believed these Celts to be Israelites. Therefore, it would appear Yahshua must have been a Celt!
Key words: Anglo, Saxon, Celts, Celtic, Israel, Israelites, Britain, America, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, truth, bible, God, Yahweh, Yahshua, Jesus, truth, gospel, british, kingdom, earth, king, nation, empire, real, throne, land, law, church, british